Filling Up Christ's Afflictions - Col. 1:24

Colossians 1:24

Greek

νῦν χαίρω ἐν τοῖς παθήμασιν ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν καὶ ἀνταναπληρῶ τὰ ὑστερήματα τῶν θλίψεων τοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐν τῇ σαρκί μου ὑπὲρ τοῦ σώματος αὐτοῦ ὅ ἐστιν ἡ ἐκκλησία

(Click on a word above to have Zack Hubert at Re:Greek parse it for you)

Greek Translation
Now I rejoice in the sufferings for your sake and I fill up the deficit of Christ’s afflictions in my flesh for the sake of His body, which is the Church.


NIV
Now I rejoice in what was suffered for you, and I fill up in my flesh what is still lacking in regard to Christ’s afflictions, for the sake of His body, which is the Church.

Accurately obscures the sufferings at the beginning of the verse. Later, Paul fills it up in his body, so most likely this first sufferings does refer to himself, but NIV rightly keeps it the way he wrote it. The “what is still lacking” is bad not only because the still isn’t there in Greek, but also because Paul is filling in the gap presently, so it no longer is still lacking… Paul is filling it. Although pathemasin at the beginning and thlipseon in the middle can both be translated “afflictions,” the NIV did good to translate them differently to keep the distinction between Paul’s sufferings and Christ’s afflictions… that they are separate trials in intensity and in affect.

NASB
Now I rejoice in my sufferings for your sake, and in my flesh I do my share on behalf of His body, which is the Church, in filling up what is lacking in Christ’s afflictions.

Interprets the sufferings as mine. Not at all sure where NASB gets the “in my flesh I do my share.” This is a rare case in which NASB does some inappropriate interpretive work. Major word order problem bringing the “in my flesh I do my share on behalf of His body, which is the Church” to the middle rather than keeping it at the end as it is in the Greek. Diddo NIV in keeping “sufferings” and “afflictions” distinct.


KJV
Who now rejoice in my sufferings for you, and fill up that which is behind of the afflictions of Christ in my flesh for His body’s sake, which is the Church:

Thoroughly unreadable in the 21st century. Diddo NASB: interprets the sufferings as mine. Granted we are separate by 400 years, but it sounds in 21st century English like KJV is saying Paul’s sufferings are behind Christ’s afflictions. That is to say, his don’t measure up to His. But this is not what the Greek says. The Greeks says “I supply the deficiencies of Christ’s afflictions.” Consequently this "behind Christ's" is what Tyndale (1534) translated it as. Tyndale's verse 24 is "Now joy I in my sufferings which I suffer for you, and fulfil that which is behind of the passions of Christ in my flesh for His body's sake, which is the congregation." He got the distinguishing of Paul's and Christ's afflictions wrong where he translates both as "passions." I like what Tyndale wrote in commentary. "Passions or sufferings of Christ: is the passions which we must suffer for His sake. For we have professed and are appointed to suffer with Christ. John 20, as My Father sent Me, so send I you." That we don't suffer FOR Him, but we suffer WITH Him. Consequently, Wycliffe (1388) got it right and I will add that below...


Wycliffe (1388)
And now I have joy in passion for you, and I fill those things that fail of the passions of Christ in my flesh for His body, which is the Church."

He got the passion wrong in making both sufferings and afflictions the same English word. Making two English words distinguishes them just as Paul distinguished them in Greek even though they have the same range of meanings. And now I wonder if it is not Christ's afflictions on Calvary that are deficient, but His afflictions in my body. That is to say, Christ is suffering in my body as I am wounded for His Name's sake. But His suffering is not yet complete... His plan is that I suffer more and that He in me suffer more. The Wycliffe translation puts more likeliness in this than the other English translations. I suppose the possibility is there in the Greek. See my Greek translation at the top.


ESV
Now I rejoice in my sufferings for your sake, and in my flesh I am filling up what is lacking in Christ’s afflictions for the sake of His body, that is, the Church.

Diddo NASB and KJV: interprets the sufferings as mine. Word order issue, moving “in my flesh” to the front of the phrase. Overall, pretty good translation. Diddo NIV, NASB, and KJV distinguishing “sufferings” from “afflictions.”


NLT
I am glad when I suffer for you in my body, for I am completing what remains of Christ’s sufferings for His body, the Church.

The temporality of the rejoicing is not in the Greek, as it is in James 1:2 (hotan, whenever). “I suffer” in the Greek is a noun, not a verb… should be “in the sufferings” rather than “when I suffer.” Puts “in my body” with “the sufferings” rather than with the “I am completing” as it is in the Greek. Gets the meaning pretty good with “I am completing what remains of Christ’s sufferings for His body.” That is, the thrust of Paul’s comment is to say Christ is in me, ministering to His Church through me. As he got done saying in the previous section v13-22, that Christ is the first place, He wins everything, He is responsible for all good. And then anticipates well what Paul will say in v27 that the mystery is “Christ in me” and in v29 “His power working mightily in me.” This is the least possibly-arrogant of the major translations. Paul wasn’t really bragging in the Greek, but in English you could (and you’d be wrong) accuse him of boastful pride. NLT captures best the heart of his comment. Kudos!


See my comments on the whole section of 1:23-29 here.